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Post by gsmithb on Feb 13, 2014 4:49:01 GMT
We were wondering why Christ used spittle on the eyes of the blind man. It is possible that because he had been blind for so long that his eyes were dry and crusted shut. The spittle would have taken the barrier away so the the miracle could be performed. Also why did Christ have to do it twice? It possible that the man's faith was weak or that it would be easier for him to understand the healing in two phases. We are not told.
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Lee
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Post by Lee on Feb 14, 2014 3:03:54 GMT
There was another similar miracle in John 9:1 (where he was born blind). Christ healed him in a similar way (spit, mud, but also had him wash in pool of Siloam.) (I don't think this was the same incident was it??)
It seems two things were accomplished with the above miracle, he healed the blind, but he also showed the error of the Pharisees who taught one shouldn't even spit on the Sabbath. Interesting how many of Christ actions appeared to point out their hypocrisy.
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