Lee
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Posts: 1,047
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Post by Lee on Jan 11, 2014 3:42:09 GMT
"Why did David eat bread which it was 'not lawful' for him to eat, only the priests?"
DAVID said it was 'in a manner common,' that is, in a sense no different from other bread. It was bread unchanged by its consecration, and quite suitable for food; and had, as our correspondent says, 'fulfilled its purpose' when removed to give place to the hot bread: while it was now exactly suitable to David's need. The source of David's liberty to use it is the solution. The Pharisees, who were trying to use it to entrap Jesus on the Sabbath question, recognized this liberty. Jesus put it on a par with the priests 'profaning' the Sabbath in administering circumcision on that day, and yet being blameless, because there was authority for the profanation in the circumcision law on the 8th day (Mt. 12:5). So also in the case of the disciples eating corn in the field on the Sabbath: he says they were 'guiltless' (v. 7) on the ground that the Son of Man was 'Lord of the Sabbath Day.' If we recognize that David, was the 'Lord's Anointed,' on whom the Spirit of God rested from theday of his anointing (ι Sm.i6:i3), we may understand that the authority of God was present to warrant an act that was not lawful under ordinary circumstances. -October, 1891
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